Question:
I read on your website that oral sex is permissible. How can this be the case when it can lead to injesting impurities? A man's and woman's genitals are impure. Common sense should tell us that this act is inherently shameful and unlawful. Just because something is not mentioned does not mean that you go out and do it.
Answered by: Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî, former professor at al-Imâm University in Riyadh.
Oral sex is lawful for both the husband and wife. It can be understood from the Prophet’s (peace be upon him) saying: “Approach from the front or the back, but avoid anal sex and sex during menstruation.”
This is clear evidence that the prohibited sexual acts are anal intercourse and intercourse with a woman during menstruation and post natal-bleeding. Everything else between a husband and a wife is permissible.
The possibility of the existence of impurity does not stand as a sufficient evidence for forbidding it. If a person thinks the intake of impurity is imminent, he must take action to avoid it.
The female genitals are not impure as long as they are free from ordinary impurities.
A feeling of guilt cannot stand as evidence for the unlawfulness of something. The evidence can only be derived from what is in Allah’s Book or the Prophet’s Sunnah (peace be upon him). There is no evidence whatsoever from these two sources forbidding this practice. Therefore, as things are basically lawful unless evidence to the contrary exists, then this practice is lawful.
Some people may dislike a practice for their own personal reasons, but we cannot say that it is an unlawful practice in Islam.
http://en.islamtoday.net/node/1514
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